frankie_the_yankee wrote: Also, there would be no need for the statute to define the term "criminal homicide". The simpler and more general term "homicide" would be adequate.
I don't think we disagee at all.txinvestigator wrote: Here we disagree. The acts ARE illegal, unless you meet the justification AND can prove it.
OJ was found "not guilty". Does that mean he did not kill Ron and Nicole?
You say yourself the acts are illegal unless you meet the justification AND can prove it.
And I'm saying that if you can meet the justification and can prove it, they are not illegal.
This seems to be exactly the same thing that you are saying.
Where we might disagree (but merely on a technicality) is where you say,
"Murder" is a criminal act by (dictionary) definition. I would regard it as what is defined in the statute as "criminal homicide".txinvestigator wrote: The murder was committed, it was just justified.
"Homicide" is the general case of the killing of a human being. It may be criminal or not, depending on whether the killing was legal under the law.
In the case given in the OP, I would not say that a murder was committed. It would take a jury trial to fully determine that. All we know at the outset is that a homicide was committed, and that the person who did it freely admits to doing it. So all we need to do is determine whether it was a legal homicide or a criminal homicide.