Okay, step-by-step.TX_Jim wrote:I ultimately agree with Chas that we are just playing word games here, however, as I pointed out earlier, just because he is a lawyer, does not make what he says correct or make it fact. As a lawyer, he should be able to walk through the scenario step by step and make his arguments stand on their own to support his conclusion and not use his credentials as a crutch to lend credence to the argument. Being a lawyer, simply means he should be able to make a better argument on the subject matter than i can.frankie_the_yankee wrote: Emphasis added.
I'm only re-quoting this message to point out that unlike most of us, Chas is a lawyer.
No Offense Chas...
No it is not. A person can be arrested for assault and he can be charged with assault. But a legal determination is not made until a jury returns a "guilty" or "not guilty" verdict. Until the jury makes this determination, there is only an allegation (charge) against the defendant.TX_Jim wrote: . . . The sole act of pointing a firearm at a human being is a threat of use of deadly force and is, at the very least, a violation of penal code as defined by PC 22.01 ASSAULT and a class a misdemeanor is punishable by law.
This is true, but only when the undefined term is used in the statute and is thus an element of the offense. Since the word "crime" isn't used in the Penal Code sections we have been discussing, it is not an element of the alleged offense, thus Webster's definition or common meaning or usage is irrelevant.TX_Jim wrote: . . . I could not find a definition for the word “crime� in the penal code (if someone knows where it is defined please tell me), and therefore when a word is not defined it takes on the “usual� meaning.
No it is not, for the reasons previously stated.TX_Jim wrote:Therefore the act of simply pointing a weapon is a violation of law and according to definition....it is a "crime" onto and in itself.
Correct, and this will be determined only by a jury, not the arresting officer, not the Grand Jury, not the prosecutor, and not the judge (unless it is a bench trial).TX_Jim wrote:The victim either the acted in violation of the law or did not act in violation law.
No, I do not agree. The act of pointing a gun at someone may give a LEO reasonable reason to believe a crime has been committed, it may give a Grand Jury reason to believe that sufficient evidence exists to indict someone and take them to trial, but a determination as to whether the allegation (charge) is true is left solely to the jury.TX_Jim wrote:I hope we can all agree that this act had to take place at some point in the scenario and agree that the act in itself is a violation of law…but I digress.
It absolutely does! If an act is justified, then the defendant will be found "not guilty." Absent a jury finding of "guilty," there is no violation. Remember, only a jury can make this determination.TX_Jim wrote:Penal Code 9.31 says that certain acts are “justified� if they rise to the extent of self-defense. The word justified in no way means or implies that a law was not violated.
The fallacy of this argument is that you are trying to determine whether a violation of a penal statute has occurred, without completing the entire process. As noted earlier, if all of the elements of a offense appear to be present, then a LEO can make an arrest, a Grand Jury can indict, and the prosecutor can bring the case to trial. At trial, the jury will consider all of the evidence, including any evidence of "justification," and it will make the ultimate determination of whether or not a violation has occurred. Until then, whether or not a violation has occurred (a/k/a crime has been committed) will be nothing more than matters of personal opinion.TX_Jim wrote:Small recap…the victim violated law when he/she pointed the firearm at another human being. The act is justified by law but does not erase the fact that a law was violated it simply justifies it.
Not true! A jury either finds the defendant "guilty" or "not guilty." There is no verdict "guilty, but without punishment."TX_Jim wrote:Further exploration…When a violation of law is justified, the people simply make a concession on punishment not a concession on law.
Wrong. The defendant will be found "not guilty" by the jury and he will have no criminal convictions on his "record."TX_Jim wrote:In conclusion, given the scenario in the OP, A law was violated under justifiable conditions. The victim will not be held accountable or punished for violated the law under those conditions.
This step-by-step trip through the process shows why I said only a jury's determination will answer questions “Did you break the law?� and “Was a crime committed?� Each of us can have personal opinions as to whether or not the evidence rises to the level that would support a conviction, but unless we are on the jury, our opinions don’t matter.
Also as I said earlier, when we as laymen (me included, when I’m not wearing my attorney hat), talk about something being a “crime,� we typically are either talking about an event for which someone has been convicted, or we are expressing our belief that all of the elements of an offense are present, that no defenses exists under the law, and that someone will or should be convicted at some point.
This is the same analysis I give to my clients who may ask “was I negligent� or was the opposing party negligent? What they think, what I think, and what the opposing party or attorney think is meaningless. Only a determination by a jury will answer the question.
Chas.