Are "split" signs legal???

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joe817
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Re: Are "split" signs legal???

#16

Post by joe817 »

Ruark wrote:
Why are you looking to get past the intent of the store owner?
Why do you assume I'm trying to "get past the intent" of the store owner? I'm just asking whether its legal or not; I have NO intention of violating it either way. Some of you guys just love to throw crap at people. I'm just making conversation here, OK? Keep yer shirt on.
There is no requirement in the law for the sign to be contiguous.
Right, there's not. So I'm just going by the exact language of the law: "A sign ... that includes ... both English and Spanish..." Two signs 30 feet apart isn't exactly "a sign."
Uhhhh, what's the problem here officer? If there are 2 signs, both having the correct wording, as prescribed by statute, uhhhhh, why is there this question? Seems like there's just a feeble attempt to bait somebody into an argument where there's no argument to be had.

I see signs almost daily where ONE sign is a proper 30.06 sign in English, and another 30.06 sign in Spanish.....2 different signs. But boy howdy, it sure gets the point across!

Am I missing something here?
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WildBill
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Re: Are "split" signs legal???

#17

Post by WildBill »

Ruark wrote:
Why are you looking to get past the intent of the store owner?
Why do you assume I'm trying to "get past the intent" of the store owner? I'm just asking whether its legal or not; I have NO intention of violating it either way. Some of you guys just love to throw crap at people. I'm just making conversation here, OK? Keep yer shirt on.
There is no requirement in the law for the sign to be contiguous.
Right, there's not. So I'm just going by the exact language of the law: "A sign ... that includes ... both English and Spanish..." Two signs 30 feet apart isn't exactly "a sign."
So if I agree with you then what? Are you finished? Or will you find another point to argue?
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Abraham
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Re: Are "split" signs legal???

#18

Post by Abraham »

Of late, we seem to have a small coterie of new/newish members who want to split hairs about signs and other topics.

Perhaps, this group is angling for a Monty Pythonesque arguing license.
Last edited by Abraham on Sun Feb 07, 2016 11:50 am, edited 1 time in total.
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nightmare69
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Re: Are "split" signs legal???

#19

Post by nightmare69 »

This would be an issue you could discuss with the judge on your later court date.
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Bryanmc
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Re: Are "split" signs legal???

#20

Post by Bryanmc »

Abraham wrote: Perhaps, this group is angling for a Monty Pythonesque arguing license.
No we're not! :lol::
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Re: Are "split" signs legal???

#21

Post by BCGlocker »

In a recent January CHL Instructor's course in Florence, the DPS instructor demonstrated the 30.06 sign and 30.07 signs in English only and said they were legal. I raise the question regarding where is the Spanish wordings and was told just assume it is legal…even on a gun buster sign. The lesson taught was "You May Beat the Rap, But You Can't Beat The Ride".
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thetexan
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Re: Are "split" signs legal???

#22

Post by thetexan »

WildBill wrote:
Ruark wrote:We're getting off topic. I'm not talking about a card that is handed you per "giving notice." I'm talking about the 30.06 sign that is posted outside. The code says, and I quote:
(B) a sign posted on the property that:
(i) includes the language ... in both English and Spanish;
Don't worry, I have NO intention of walking past any such sign, regardless. I'm just asking out of curiousity if, technically, a "split" sign is legal, as I have seen at some locations where the English and Spanish versions are 20+ feet apart.
There is no requirement in the law for the sign to be contiguous.
Not unless you give no meaning to the phase " a sign".

tex
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thetexan
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Re: Are "split" signs legal???

#23

Post by thetexan »

BCGlocker wrote:In a recent January CHL Instructor's course in Florence, the DPS instructor demonstrated the 30.06 sign and 30.07 signs in English only and said they were legal. I raise the question regarding where is the Spanish wordings and was told just assume it is legal…even on a gun buster sign. The lesson taught was "You May Beat the Rap, But You Can't Beat The Ride".
This is the kind of crap that leads to all of the confusion. The DPS instructor has no authority to tell anyone to assume a English only is legal. IT MAY VERY WELL BE LEGAL but that has not been determined yet and the DPS instructor is not the source of of that info. You couldn't know that at the time and he has an air of authority but he was out of line by telling anyone in a class what they can assume and not assume about these statutes unless he can show documentation supporting it.

tex
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jmorris
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Re: Are "split" signs legal???

#24

Post by jmorris »

thetexan wrote:
BCGlocker wrote:In a recent January CHL Instructor's course in Florence, the DPS instructor demonstrated the 30.06 sign and 30.07 signs in English only and said they were legal. I raise the question regarding where is the Spanish wordings and was told just assume it is legal…even on a gun buster sign. The lesson taught was "You May Beat the Rap, But You Can't Beat The Ride".
This is the kind of crap that leads to all of the confusion. The DPS instructor has no authority to tell anyone to assume a English only is legal. IT MAY VERY WELL BE LEGAL but that has not been determined yet and the DPS instructor is not the source of of that info. You couldn't know that at the time and he has an air of authority but he was out of line by telling anyone in a class what they can assume and not assume about these statutes unless he can show documentation supporting it.

tex
I took his comment to be to assume the Spanish is legal since there is no definite version of the Spanish. *But* there were comments made that showed they believe the intent of the sign is enough. One instructor stated that a license holder had been convicted of carrying past a gun buster sign. I wasn't able to talk to him to get more details.
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Abraham
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Re: Are "split" signs legal???

#25

Post by Abraham »

My poor aching about to explode head...

Oh, here's your officially earned Monty Python Arguing License.

You've earned it!

The Wall
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Re: Are "split" signs legal???

#26

Post by The Wall »

What if you don't speak English or Spanish. I guess if you're German the law doesn't apply. :lol: I've said this before I don't care what kind of sign they have. It could be written on a napkin. If I see it and know they don't want my gun I don't carry. I believe the sign requirements are there to make sure you see them.


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BCGlocker
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Re: Are "split" signs legal???

#27

Post by BCGlocker »

jmorris wrote:
thetexan wrote:
BCGlocker wrote:In a recent January CHL Instructor's course in Florence, the DPS instructor demonstrated the 30.06 sign and 30.07 signs in English only and said they were legal. I raise the question regarding where is the Spanish wordings and was told just assume it is legal…even on a gun buster sign. The lesson taught was "You May Beat the Rap, But You Can't Beat The Ride".
This is the kind of crap that leads to all of the confusion. The DPS instructor has no authority to tell anyone to assume a English only is legal. IT MAY VERY WELL BE LEGAL but that has not been determined yet and the DPS instructor is not the source of of that info. You couldn't know that at the time and he has an air of authority but he was out of line by telling anyone in a class what they can assume and not assume about these statutes unless he can show documentation supporting it.

tex
I took his comment to be to assume the Spanish is legal since there is no definite version of the Spanish. *But* there were comments made that showed they believe the intent of the sign is enough. One instructor stated that a license holder had been convicted of carrying past a gun buster sign. I wasn't able to talk to him to get more details.

You may remember I asked twice that because the signs lack of Spanish therefore they were "illegal" signs. They never answered the question.
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Ruark
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Re: Are "split" signs legal???

#28

Post by Ruark »

Why do some people try to turn every discussion into a debate or argument? That's not the intent here. Cripes.

The law says, very clearly, "a sign..." and that sign must contain the correct text in both English and Spanish. I do NOT want to be the test case for it, but technically, an English-only or Spanish-only sign isn't valid. We've all seen some signs that are in two parts right next to each other, even touching, one English and one Spanish. So how far apart do they need to be before it could be considered two signs: an English-only and a Spanish-only? I've already seen two cases where it was English only, and I looked around and saw the Spanish version at least 25 feet away.

This whole question may be moot, anyway. At the next legislative session, the Moms are really going to push for an 8 1/2 by 11 gunbuster signage, and they have the full support of the Texas Association of Businesses, which represents over 4,000 Texas businesses and 200 Chambers of Commerce. Texas is, to my knowledge, the only state that requires these big, complex signs, and there's been a lot of complaining and confusion from business owners about them. The gunbuster sign failing, it's also possible that a compromise sign might evolve, a single sign covering all modes of carry.
-Ruark

thetexan
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Re: Are "split" signs legal???

#29

Post by thetexan »

Abraham wrote:My poor aching about to explode head...

Oh, here's your officially earned Monty Python Arguing License.

You've earned it!
I'm sure it is and a lot of people eyes are bleeding. This is precisely why each of us needs to become experts in the rules AS WRITEN first.

When some one uses imperative words and phrases like "you HAVE TO" or "YOU MUST" or YOU'RE SUPPOSED TO" they are stating that there is a rule that supports the use of the imperative. People tend to throw those imperatives around which are then passed down from one listener to the next. After a few iterations of this everyone becomes confused and loses sight of what the foundational law states. The classic '30.06 must be posted at an entrance' interpretation is an example of this.

The only vaccination against this feeling of being dependent on other people to explain the meaning of statutes is to take the time to learn the actual law as it is written. Otherwise you will be a slave to the last person who gave you an explanation. You become a ping pong ball being slapped back and forth between one explanation and another. No wonder people become confused!

The statute on the size, wording, location of posting and the like are so simply worded the average middle schooler can understand it. But when people add "owner's intent" ( as if one can determine the owner's intent), "what makes sense", "...how are we supposed to know unless...", " a DPS instructor said...", "conspicuously means..." and a thousand other modifications, they add elements that ARE NOT A PART of the law. These added assumptions, interpretations and modifications do nothing but cause the confusion we experience in these discussions.

Here is the simple two step way to break through this fog...

1. Know and be and expert on the actual language and wording of the statute and what those words actually say based on their common definition and usage.

2. If someone tells you something different, or gives you their interpretation, or throws in one of those insidious and hidden assumptions, or uses imperative words like "have to", " supposed to", "can't", "must" then ask them to give their authority and source of their statement. If they can't or try to argue their points with more assumptions and interpretations then simply disregard that info and go back to the book. Go back to the book!!!

There must be hundreds of people on this forum. And none of them, including me, out argues the BOOK!

So while any assumption about the owner's intent may be interesting to ponder it has no legal power to modify the statute. That is the job of the courts. If you wish to assume anything on the conservative safe side then wonderful, be my guest. But passing that on to the next guy as fact is incorrect. Any interpretation someone has is just that, an interpretation, and again should not be passed on in a educational sense. And after a short time of playing this adult version of the kid's 'Telephone' game we end up with one misinformed person leading another misinformed person.

Always go back to the statute. Always read the words and go back to the statute because that is what you will be judged on. When someone says the rule can not be understood without being interpreted that is patently false. My rather extensive experience has shown me that 95-97% of most rules, regulations, and laws are clear as written and do not require our interpretation to properly follow. Notice that I am not saying that one can not make certain interpretations or assumptions in practical everyday use, but they should always be on the safe side, AND NEVER PASSED ON AS FACT. If you want to help someone always point them to the statute first, then if they still need help then help.

Remember, most people argue that there is a need for interpretation because "how else can we make sense of it all". This is many times a defense mechanism or another way of saying that the statute does not justify what THEY want the rule to say or doesn't validate what THEY want to do, or doesn't support THEIR actions. This is not limited to statutes on LTC. This applies to almost every other discipline in life that is regulated by statutes or regs. There are a few statutes in many disciplines (I believe very few of these LTC rules fall into this category) and rules that are genuinely difficult to understand and require careful study and guidance from others. But if anyone uses their interpretation to de-confuse you require them to explain their authority for the interpretation and reconcile their explanation to the wording of the rule. If they can't, then take their attempt to explain the rule with a thank you and a grain of salt. THEN GO BACK TO THE BOOK.

The book IS NEVER WRONG nor, by definition, CAN be! It says what it says and is what it is. None of us can claim that.

tex
Last edited by thetexan on Sun Feb 07, 2016 1:29 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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Breny414
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Re: Are "split" signs legal???

#30

Post by Breny414 »

Looking up the definition of "Sign" via Google, it says, "A notice that is publicly displayed." It makes no mention of substrate, same substrate, etc., etc..

By definition, HEB meets the requirements, even if their Spanish and English notice is separated by the doors.

My $0.02
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