WildBill wrote:gringo pistolero wrote:WildBill wrote:I am all for a lively discussion. Can anyone think of a scenario where the "incorrect" Spanish translation would have a bearing on a case?
If someone conceals really bad and goes somewhere that posts a sign and therefore doesn't deserve our business. It can be avoided by following the "don't do stupid things" and/or the "don't go stupid places" rules.
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Let's try one more time.
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OK, lets try this one. You are in a location with a valid-english, but poorly-worded-spanish 30.06 sign. A teenager wearing a hoodie and carrying tea and skittles, decides to start pounding your head into the sidewalk. You pull your gun, and shoot him.
You're subsequently arrested, and attempt to use the Castle law to justify your actions. However, the prosecutor points out that one of the three requirements for use of that defense is that the actor "was not otherwise engaged in criminal activity, other than a Class C misdemeanor that is a violation of a law or ordinance regulating traffic at the time the force was used." He claims that you violated PC 30.06, a class-A misdemeanor. You now must argue that the 30.06 sign is invalid because the spanish part is wrongly worded. (If you are a native-english speaker, I think you may be in for an uphill battle!
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)