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I didn't consider the possibility of the robber being invited in and then shot, but I did ask myself if the gun had been planted on him. If the resident actually had the gun to begin with, but told the police that he took it from the burglar, for some reason or another. I wonder if it will come out sometime down the line that the homeowner could not legally own a firearm (ie. convicted felon). Maybe I'm just being too cynical and jaded, but how often does a homeowner/resident go in unarmed when there is evidence of a burglary in progress, disarm one of two bad guys, and shoot that bad guy to death? Something doesn't add up right here.

That's not to say that this may not be a justifiable defensive shooting. Even if the resident were for some reason prohibited from owning a firearm, he may have interrupted a burglary in progress.