If my post came off as saying the legal grounds for seccession were sufficient alone for engaging in or defending such a right, my apologies for not being more clear. My point is first you have to have the legal standing and the moral high ground to do so. This does not come without as the founders said "..light or transitory causes.." Then and only then when you have bonafide grounds to do so do you have the moral grounds to engage in what actions, usually use of force (NOT VIOLENCE, there is a big difference between those words...) given the track-record of history, to defend your freedom to engage in said right to secede.LSUTiger wrote:Tyranny and oppression do no not care about legality. Those who would abuse their authority to gain power do so in the with complete disregard for the Constitution and laws.
The federal government has become corrupted an many of our laws have become so convoluted and ridiculous that they are no longer consistant with serving the people, with freedom or liberty. Instead they serve the growing police state.
There is the law, and then there is right and wrong. Sometimes the law is right, sometimes it is wrong. "They" are trying to subvert and corrupt all of our laws. When whats wrong is right and whats right is wrong, they will say "but thats the law!"
I agree when that line is crossed its time to start over.
My point is, we can have all the legal standing and moral high ground to do something but it is not a defense against tyranny.
Should Texas try to sucede, legal standing and moral high ground will not be enough to defend against armed federal troops sent here to squash the rebellion.
Today is no different than the first revolution, they did not look to legal precedent,but to the desire to have freedom and liberty, and the reality that enough is enough.
Legal standing to do so being identified via "...a long train of abuses.." In plainer english, continual and repeated deliberate violations of contract of government. In our case the terms of contract we established and agreed upon being the constitution and the bill of rights.
Without that you are engaged in either immoral violence or possibly engaged in insurrection, which is bonafidely illegal, insurrection being defined as revolt against a properly functioning government or a government properly engaging in it's just powers.
The founders didn't look to legal precedent as they didn't need to, they identified the natural rights of the individual via natural law, same concepts they identified in writing the second amendment. Some may say natural law is horsemanure, my answer is then show me the legal precedent the founders cited in writing the second amendment which establishes it's legitimate authority as a right. No such precedent exists as everyone knows the right to bear arms is a natural right of the individual to whatever legitimate end purpose.