No, that wasn't the question. My request was to show me support in Texas or federal law supporting your incorrect theory that the reference to"wearing of arms" found in Art. I, Sec. 23 of the Texas Constitution applies only to "concealed" arms. I understand that is your opinion, but I am asking for statutory or case law supporting that opinion.PATHFINDER wrote:But I believe the question was.....why do I assert that " this wearing of arms" regulatory provision only applies to CONCEALMENT?
Chas.