I would argue that posting the exact text of a statute is not advising on the law. Making an argument that a particular law is applicable or not applicable to a specific situation might be perceived as giving legal advice.Soccerdad1995 wrote: ↑Tue Jul 06, 2021 2:44 pmAt the threat of derailing this thread, here's an interesting question - Is it legal to intentionally post a sign that contains incorrect legal advice? Let's assume the person posting the sign is not a lawyer.ScottDLS wrote: ↑Mon Jul 05, 2021 3:17 pmIf a business that was not off limits under 46.03 (in the new law), used that sign instead of the one prescribed in 30.05, then it's hard to see how someone would be able to be successfully prosecuted under 30.05.billypat wrote: ↑Thu Jul 01, 2021 2:34 pm Will stores and other public locations use 46.03 signs rather than utilize the 30.06 and 30.07, 30.05 signs? Isn't the intent of the 46.03 to post one sign for locations that are Prohibited by state law under Texas Penal Code Section 46.03? Does this make it a legal "location" or a "legal" sign in that respect?
If someone posts a 46.03 sign at a location that is not off limits per 46.03 they are incorrectly advising the public of the law, either intentionally or unintentionally. By analogy, if I posted a sign on my door saying that solicitation at my house is a felony in Texas, punishable by a minimum of 25 years in prison, would that be OK? I'm thinking this might be a decent way to deter the solicitors who always seem to rile my dog up right when I'm in the middle of a meeting, lol.
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Return to “Will the General Public use 46.03 signs”
- Sun Jul 11, 2021 3:05 pm
- Forum: General Texas CHL Discussion
- Topic: Will the General Public use 46.03 signs
- Replies: 14
- Views: 16534