And just for the record, disagreeing about specifics of Christianity doesn't make us enemies for Life At Large. On matters of the Texas CHL and penal code, one of the first people I'll turn to for questions is Steve Rothstein, a libertarian and cop who is also a devout Jew.
1, 2, 3 and 5 are purely Biblical and undebatable. There is no Biblical basis for a special revelation of the KJV, so any claims of such are de facto extra-Biblical, relying on externalities.carlson1 wrote: Once again temptation follows me.
I believe a modernist is anyone who does not hold to the fundamentals of the faith which are:
1. The Virgin Birth.
2. The Substitutionary Death Of Jesus.
3. The Bodily Resurrection of our Saviour.
4. The Verbal Inspiration of the KING JAMES BIBLE.
5. The Second Coming of Christ.
I note that you gave special credit to the KJV of 1611. How recently have you preached from Bel and the Dragon or Simon the Maccabee? The Apocrypha were included in the 1611 KJV, you know.
There is no the Version of 1611. The first three editions carried a considerable number of what can generously be called "typographical errors". By 1613, there were 300 textual differences from 1611, and in the next 150 years, 30,000 marginal references were added. And of course, the Oxford Edition of 1679 made a number of changes.
The most important thing to note is this: disagreeing with the "King James Only" position is not a rejection of the KJV. I admire the KJV as the divinely inspired Word, but to insist that it is the only acceptable Bible means that non-English speakers are just out of luck when it comes to reading the Word. That's rather at odds with the Great Commandment.
Kevin