https://www.powerlineblog.com/archives/ ... -lives.phpSo burglars are around twice as likely to invade occupied residences in the U.K. than in the United States. Why is that? Certainly not because the American police are any more likely to interrupt a burglary in process. The obvious answer is that hardly any homeowners in the U.K. possess firearms, while gun ownership is common in the U.S. Bluntly put, a burglar who invades an occupied residence in the United States takes a not-immaterial risk that he may be shot by his intended victim.
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Return to “Mere Correlation or Also Causation”
- Sun Dec 09, 2018 5:03 pm
- Forum: Gun and/or Self-Defense Related Political Issues
- Topic: Mere Correlation or Also Causation
- Replies: 2
- Views: 766