A good point I read the other day - if the 2A meant militia, and the militia was the run by the state, why would the state need permission to arm itself? When you think of it like that, it makes perfect sense that the amendment is for individuals... And as it was said before, the militia back then was considered EVERY individual (or at least every free man).Dreamer42 wrote:The original language of the period defines "regulated" as being able to march, knowing the manual of arms, follow orders, readiness, structure of a military command - officers, enlisted, etc. It does not mean regulated in terms of controlled or maintained by a state or federal government like we think of today. By definition, the militia was THE PEOPLE. Many of the first militias were in fact church congregations who took it upon themselves to drill (become regulated) in the use of arms and tactics in order to defend their communities and farms. If any governments were involved, it was the town or village, not the state.
The problem that Liberals have with the 2A is they want to define the Militia as a State organization, like today's National Guard, and that the term "people" in the 2A only refers to those within the Militia. The problem with that line of logic (???) is that if the word "people" in all other Amendments (like the 1st) means the individual citizen, but that it somehow means something different in the 2A.
- Dreamer42
EDIT: after reading the article, both of these points are in it. My apologies, and great article.