I could be wrong, but I seem to recall discussing something like this in another thread. It might have been condos and it might have been gated communities. I believe that Charles (I may be wrong so don't hold me to it) said that it really has to do with the actual sales contract for the condo and how the common areas are deeded. If the deed says they are owned by all in undivided interests, then the posting is probably invalid. If the deed says they are owned by the condo association/corporation/whatever with the right of use, then the postings are probably valid.
If it was a gated community and a homeowners association, I am not even sure this will apply, but it sounds kind of logical to me.
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- by srothstein
- Wed Jan 06, 2016 11:53 pm
- Forum: General Texas CHL Discussion
- Topic: Condo complex posting 30.06 and 30.07
- Replies: 8
- Views: 2675
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