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I've been puzzling through some of the legal ramifications of this question and I still need to go back and re-read the relevant portions of the penal code to make sure, but the topic about FFLs for interstate sales reminded me that some of you probably some insight that's worth hearing.

A while back, my dad ran into some financial trouble and had to sell all of his guns. Said financial problems have been resolved and he's making good money again, and while he said several times that he wanted to replace all of the hardware that he sold, he's been reluctant to spend that amount of money on himself. The rest of the family has come up with idea of pooling our resources and just getting him a new gun the next time his birthday comes around, and being the only other firearms-literate person in the family, I'm probably going to wind up doing any required purchasing.

I'm sort of hesitant, but I'm sure that there's a legal way to do this, because it seems to happen a lot. The only potential hitch is that Dad lives in a different state. Neither of us is prohibited from owning a firearm by any federal law or state law in either of the states concerned. While I am by no means going to depend on this assumption, it seems kind of like once I purchase a firearm, it is becomes my property, and I should be able to transfer ownership however I like, as long as no laws are broken (i.e., I do not transfer it to someone underage, a convicted felon, or someone else barred from possession of a firearm). It's been a while since I read them, but I seem to remember the statutes about this prohibiting the sale of a firearm to an individual who is going to transfer it to someone incapable of purchasing it themselves. I don't think this applies here, but can see where there's a possibility that it could, with the interstate thing.

Thoughts?