b322da wrote:This is not a big philosophical problem. The answer is found in the plain wording of the Constitution. It was once an issue, with, for example, James Madison suggesting that non-citizens were not parties to this Constitution -- that they were not members of "We the people of the United States...." who gave birth to the Constitution. He lost, and the Bill of Rights passed in the form we see it today, and the fact that the issue was debated by the framers is "legislative history," if you will, which is not seriously debated any more.Katygunnut wrote:I may be slow, but there is a fundamental question that I think I'm missing here.
Does the US Constitution grant rights to only US citizens, or does it also grant rights to people who are not US citizens? If the latter, then exactly who gets US constitutional rights? Do you have to be physically present in the US, or can you get constitutional rights by virtue of being alive (practical considerations of giving US constitutional rights to someone in say North Korea notwithstanding).
I always thought that the US constitution applied only to US citizens and that the framers did not intend for the bill of rights and other provisions to apply to others who were merely located in the US (slaves, British soldiers fighting the war of 1812, Native Americans, etc. etc.). Was I misinformed in my public school education on this point?
The Bill of Rights speaks in terms of "the people," or "persons." Not having the time to go through the Constitution word by word, nor having time to refer this question to those new members of the House of Representatives who are our new experts on the Constitution, I will stick my neck out and guess that the only "right" not afforded non-citizen residents who are not candidates for national public office is the right to vote. That is, non-citizens are "people," and they are "persons," whether they are legally in the country or not.
For example, "...the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed." "The right of the people to be secure...." "No person shall be held to answer...." The earlier words of the XIV Amendment have resulted in a little renewed debate on the question, but its last clause settled the debate.
You ask, Katygunnut, another question. "Was I misinformed in my public school education on this point?"
The answer to your question, I'm afraid, is "Yes." I can assure you that you are not the only person so misinformed by teachers who confuse their personal political views of what they think the law ought to be, with what the law really is, and they can cause a whole generation of their students to be misinformed.
Respectfully,
Elmo
My last question was rhetorical in nature. I know that I was misinformed in my public school education.
Interesting history lesson. I'll refrain from a follow-up question because it would be way off topic, and it is probably a useful history lesson for me to look up on my own. This is actually a bit embarassing because I like to think of myself as being pretty knowledgable regarding history in general (including US history).