How is federal pretrial diversion - which is pretty rare, especially post-indictment - considered relative to Texas LTC eligibility?
Here's a timeline of strange events:
- Dec. 2003: I was reported to the FBI for a non-violent felony crime under very tenuous circumstances. They asked me some questions and said I may or may not end up being charged. Then there was radio silence until:
- Feb. 2007: A grand jury indicted me for said felony, much to the shock of my high-profile attorney who thought it very unlikely that DOJ would want to move forward. I pled NOT GUILTY and we began preparing for trial.
- May 2009: After a few years of trial preparations, DOJ realized they probably didn't want to prosecute this case. They filed a motion for indefinite continuance on the basis of our ongoing settlement talks.
- May 2010: DOJ extended a formal offer of pretrial diversion, which is normally done pre-indictment, but in my unfortunate case came after. Although it is similar to deferred adjudication in the sense that all charges are dismissed after I successfully complete the program, it differs in a few key ways:
- There is never any court order regarding this action. It is a voluntary DOJ program that bypasses the court process all together. My case went from a motion for continuance to a motion for dismissal.
- There is no plea of GUILTY or NO CONTEST entered as a condition of participation. Unlike deferred adjudication, where a violation can result in a finding of guilt, my failure to complete the pretrial diversion would simply have nullified the settlement agreement and caused us to return to trial preparations.
- Nov. 2011: After I successfully completed the pretrial diversion program, DOJ filed a motion to dismiss. In their motion, they cited the fact that we had entered into this pretrial diversion agreement as a means of settling the case, and that it was completed successfully.
If the opinion is that it DOES count as a deferred adjudication, it looks like the penal code sets the timeframe as 10 years from when "an order of deferred adjudication was entered" to the LTC application. In my case, since there was never an order regarding this program since it takes place outside the court system, what would the timeline be? Logic might dictate that it would be the date that the pretrial diversion agreement was entered into, however that would be outside the letter of the law since, again, there was never anything consummating that in the court record.
I would be very curious and appreciative to hear from anyone who has experience with or knowledge of similar circumstances and their outcomes.
Thank you!