You are wrong about this. In another thread I have posted case law that is applicable to this issue. When the property owner calls the police, the police have the apparent authority to give notice and to arrest the trespasser.Soccerdad1995 wrote:I am just questioning the specific terminology of "someone with apparent authority". IANAL, and am more used to contract interpretations than anything related to criminal law, but as applied to contracts, someone with apparent authority can legally obligate the principal to a contract, include obligations to perform a service, pay monies, etc. It just seems very odd that a property owner would want an average LEO to have this level of authority.mreed911 wrote:Police have long been able to issue Criminal Trespass Warnings on behalf of an owner. Why would this change now?Soccerdad1995 wrote:I noticed this as well. "Apparent Authority" is a legal concept. Among other things, it generally means that the principal (owner in this case) is bound by the promises and is liable for the actions of the person who they allowed to possess apparent authority (the agent). I would be highly skeptical that a government agent has this level of authority for any particular business where they are not an owner or employee.
Charles - can you weigh in on this point? And does it work both ways? Can a LEO tell a CHL that they are authorized to carry past a valid 30.06 sign since they have apparent authority to act on the property owners' behalf?
I am particularly interested in whether this same term has a different meaning in the context of Texas CHL laws.
Without knowing better, I would have assumed that police would need express authority to issue a valid criminal trespass warning (the owner asking the officer to please issue the warning), and not just apparent authority.
IANAL, but if one wants to add their perspective I would welcome it.