With that said, why couldn't congress write
...to ship or transport in interstate or foreign commerce, or possess in or affecting commerce, any firearm or ammunition; or to receive any firearm or ammunition which has been shipped or transported in interstate or foreign commerce.
Seems like a lot of extraneous verbiage. I'm led to conclude that congress couldn't write it constitutionally without "interstate commerce." When the federal gov reworked the GFSZ, pretty much all they did was add interstate commerce to magically resurrect that unconstitutional law. As the ATF presents it, owning/possessing a firearm is affecting interstate commerce.
...
I decided not to continue on half-cocked and do some reading, and I found this, which appears to support my point (That USC 18 922 doesn't apply to Mr.Castille).
https://cdn.ca9.uscourts.gov/datastore/ ... -15700.pdf...The burden on Wilson’s core Second Amendment right is not severe. Title 18 U.S.C. § 922(d)(3), 27 C.F.R. § 478.11, and the Open Letter bar only the sale of firearms to Wilson–not her possession of firearms. Wilson could have amassed legal firearms before acquiring a registry card, and 18 U.S.C. § 922(d)(3), 27 C.F.R. § 478.11, and the Open Letter would WILSON V. LYNCH 15 not impede her right to keep her firearms or to use them to protect herself and her home.
last paragraph of page 14
Regardless, you've given me a good homework assignment this weekend!
edit I think you addressed some of my concerns in the post prior to this, which I haphazardly restated again. I'm low on sleep. I'll concede your clarification of GFSZ history is superior to my recollection.